r/DebateACatholic • u/HistoricalPotatoe • 8h ago
Why Did God Demand Violating Ancient Law for the Host?
I'm going to spend section A speaking of John 6, those who already know that chapter can skip this point.
Section A:
John 6 is a famous chapter of the Bible. The culmination of it is when Jesus tells those following
"53 Jesus said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you do not have life within you.
54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him on the last day.
55 For my flesh is true food, and my blood is true drink.
56 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me and I in him.
57 Just as the living Father sent me and I have life because of the Father, so also the one who feeds on me will have life because of me.
58 This is the bread that came down from heaven. Unlike your ancestors who ate and still died, whoever eats this bread will live forever.”
59 These things he said while teaching in the synagogue in Capernaum."
(Source: https://bible.usccb.org/bible/john/6)
The response comes from the crowd and then from Jesus:
"60 Then many of his disciples who were listening said, “This saying is hard; who can accept it?”
61 Since Jesus knew that his disciples were murmuring about this, he said to them, “Does this shock you?
62 What if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?
63 It is the spirit that gives life, while the flesh is of no avail. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and life.
64 But there are some of you who do not believe.” Jesus knew from the beginning the ones who would not believe and the one who would betray him.
65 And he said, “For this reason I have told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by my Father.”
66 As a result of this, many [of] his disciples returned to their former way of life and no longer accompanied him."
Some Protestants say that this is symbolic language. Even if it were, that wouldn't solve all questions, but the writing does not appear symbolic either. It appears quite literal. Especially since, as the footnote says for verses 54 through 58, the Greek verb for eating Christ's flesh is especially visceral:
"Eats: the verb used in these verses is not the classical Greek verb used of human eating, but that of animal eating: “munch,” “gnaw.” This may be part of John’s emphasis on the reality of the flesh and blood of Jesus" (https://bible.usccb.org/bible/john/6)
Section B:
I don't contest that this language was literal.
I have to ask why the Bible speaks of the Jews leaving as a bad thing. They were following what God taught them. They were not even allowed to:
Consume animal blood (Deuteronomy 12:23)
Eat anything they already found dead or cook a goat in milk (Deuteronomy 14:21)
Or even touching a human corpse, since even touching a dead body makes one unclean for seven days (Numbers 19:11-13)
And yet Jesus tells those following that they *must* eat and drink human flesh and blood. What was a Jew supposed to do after hearing that? Obeying it would have violated the law horribly. That alone violates two laws already listed above without even mentioning cannibalism itself.
This causes a big issue of why God would ordain such a method. This language is common in Christianity, and so it is not uncommon for one to not be able to feel the sort of whiplash it would give. This is an analogy to help translate both the shock *and* divine contradiction of this. This analogy isn't to be vulgar, it is to show not just the emotional reasoning but also the understandable doctrinal revulsion of the Jews.
This would be like if the Second Coming happened, Jesus descended from the clouds, and Jesus ordered all faithful to undress and commit 'sacred orgies' among each other like some ancient near Eastern and Greek sects did. That is the least graphic way one can express the tonal and doctrinal backlash the Jews would have felt. Imagine if that happened and Christians were told to fornicate among each other in such a graphic way. That wouldn't just be emotionally clashing, it would also violate the law as Christians understood it. The same with the Jews in this episode.
This isn't like stuff like gleaming grain on the Sabbath, or paying taxes to Caesar. This is bedrock level importance for the Mosaic Law, the same law supposedly from God, and the same law ordered to be broken in such a way. Why would those listening have been expected to follow? In the Second Coming scenario, would those faithful who would refuse such orgies be seen as horrible too?