Scenario 1:
Our family currently lives in House A as our principal residence. We have $1M equity, and owe $100k on the mortgage.
We would like to re-finance House A and utilize the equity to buy House B for $1.2M.
We would then live in House B and it would become our new principal residence. House A would be converted into a rental property.
Our research tells us that none of the interest on House A would be tax deductible, because we used the equity to borrow more money to pay for House B (our new principal residence).
Scenario 2:
We sell House A, and use the proceeds to pay for House B. House B would be our principal residence.
We then refinance House B by utilizing the equity, to re-purchase House A so we can rent it out.
In this scenario, House A is our rental property immediately after the re-purchase. The mortgage interest related to funds to re-purchase House A is tax deductible.
For simplicity, I am not getting into deemed dispositions or property transfer taxes. Being able to deduct mortgage interest on our annual tax returns is a big sticking point for us.
Is my understanding in the above scenarios correct?
In both scenarios, we end up with House B as our principal residence, and House A as an investment property.
Is anyone aware of a workaround (that does not involve triggering additional property transfer tax)?